GCE · Biology · 2026

GCE 2026 Biology Paper 1: Answers with Explanations

All 40 answers to the 2026 GCE Biology Paper 1 (5090/1) multiple-choice questions, each with a short explanation of why it is correct and why the other options are wrong.

By MathGuide Updated 24 October 2026 Paper 5090/1 40 marks

MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS [40 MARKS]

Answer all the questions. Each question carries one mark.

Question 1

1 The part of the microscope responsible for reflecting light rays onto the object is the …
A condenser
B mirror
C objective lens
D stage

Answer: B (mirror). The mirror reflects light from the lamp or window up through the condenser and onto the specimen. The condenser focuses the light, the objective lens magnifies, and the stage holds the slide.

Question 2

2 The diagram shows a cell seen under an electron microscope. Which labelled part modifies and carries proteins such as enzymes from the site of synthesis to the site of reaction?

Cell seen under an electron microscope with parts labelled A to D

Answer: B (Golgi body). The Golgi body is the stack of flattened sacs. It receives proteins made on the ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (D), modifies and packages them into vesicles, and sends them where they are needed.

Question 3

3 Uptake of dissolved mineral salts by root hair cells is an example of …
A active transport
B diffusion
C osmosis
D plasmolysis

Answer: A (active transport). Root hair cells already contain more mineral ions than the soil water, so ions must be moved against the concentration gradient. That needs energy from respiration: active transport. Osmosis is the movement of water only.

Question 4

4 The diagram shows the breakdown of food substance X by enzyme V at pH 2 into substance Y. What are Y and V?
A maltose, amylase
B maltose, maltase
C peptide, pepsin
D peptide, pepsinogen

Substance X broken down by enzyme V at pH 2 into substance Y

Answer: C (peptide, pepsin). pH 2 is the acid of the stomach, where pepsin breaks proteins into peptides. Amylase works at about pH 7, and pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, not the working enzyme.

Question 5

5 A food sample is mixed with ethanol to dissolve it, then distilled water is added and the colour change is observed. Which food test is this?
A Benedict’s test
B Biuret test
C emulsion test
D iodine test

Answer: C (emulsion test). This is the test for fats. Fat dissolves in ethanol; when water is added, the fat comes out as tiny droplets and the mixture turns cloudy white.

Question 6

6 Rickets develops due to a deficiency in nutrition. Which food would be best to prevent rickets?

FoodCalciumIodineIronVitamin D
A✓✓✗✗
B✓✗✗✓
C✗✓✗✓
D✗✓✓✗

Answer: B (contains calcium and vitamin D). Rickets is soft, weak bones. Bones need calcium, and vitamin D is needed to absorb calcium from the gut, so the best food contains both.

Question 7

7 Which group of people needs more energy-giving foods in their diet?
A aged
B manual worker
C pre-school children
D sick people

Answer: B (manual worker). Hard physical work uses the most energy, so manual workers need more carbohydrates and fats than the other groups.

Question 8

8 Which component of a balanced diet acts as a medium for biochemical reactions in living cells?
A dietary fibre
B mineral salts
C vitamins
D water

Answer: D (water). Chemical reactions in cells take place in solution, and water is the solvent in the cytoplasm.

Question 9

9 The diagram shows the external structure of a leaf. Which labelled part increases light absorption for photosynthesis?

External structure of a leaf with parts labelled A to D

Answer: B (lamina, the leaf blade). The lamina is broad and thin, giving a large surface area to absorb light.

Question 10

10 Identify the tooth in the diagram and its function.
A canine, tearing
B incisor, biting off pieces
C molar, grinding and crushing
D premolar, grinding and crushing

A single pointed tooth with one long root

Answer: A (canine, used for tearing). The tooth has one pointed cusp and one long root, the shape of a canine. Incisors are chisel-shaped; molars and premolars have broad, ridged surfaces.

Question 11

11 Which of the following food nutrients is an end product of digestion?
A amino acids
B cellulose
C fats
D proteins

Answer: A (amino acids). Proteins are digested to amino acids, which are small enough to be absorbed. Fats and proteins are the starting molecules, and humans cannot digest cellulose.

Question 12

12 Between which parts of an insect does gaseous exchange occur?
A blood and spiracles
B blood and trachea
C tissue and spiracles
D tissue and trachea

Answer: D (tissue and trachea). Air enters through the spiracles and travels down tracheae (and fine tracheoles) straight to the tissues. Insect blood does not carry oxygen, so exchange is directly between the tracheae and the tissues.

Question 13

13 Which substance in cigarette smoke is addictive?
A carbon monoxide
B nicotine
C sulphur dioxide
D tar

Answer: B (nicotine). Carbon monoxide reduces oxygen transport, and tar causes cancer, but nicotine is the addictive drug.

Question 14

14 Which of the following is the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in man?
A Glucose → carbon dioxide + water + energy
B Glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy
C Glucose → ethanol + energy
D Glucose → lactic acid + energy

Answer: D (glucose → lactic acid + energy). Human muscles short of oxygen make lactic acid. Option B (ethanol + carbon dioxide) is anaerobic respiration in yeast, and option A is aerobic respiration.

Question 15

15 Why is it important to determine the Rhesus factor of a pregnant woman?
A organ transplant
B blood transfusion
C to prevent haemolytic disease in the foetus
D to prevent HIV transmission

Answer: C. If a Rhesus-negative mother carries a Rhesus-positive baby, she can make antibodies that destroy the red blood cells of a later Rhesus-positive baby (haemolytic disease of the newborn). Knowing her Rhesus factor lets doctors prevent this.

Question 16

16 Jane, whose blood group is B, needs a transfusion. From which blood groups can she receive blood?
A A and B only
B AB and O only
C A, B and AB only
D B and O only

Answer: D (B and O only). Group B blood contains anti-A antibodies, so it would clump any blood carrying antigen A (groups A and AB). Group O has no antigens, so it is safe.

Question 17

17 The diagram shows the relationship between blood, lymph and tissue fluid. Identify the structure labelled P.
A Blood capillary
B Blood cells
C Lacteals
D Lymphatic vessel

Diagram of a blood vessel, tissue fluid, body cells and a lymph vessel, with P labelling the lower vessel

Answer: A (blood capillary). P is the vessel along the bottom from which glucose and oxygen pass out into the tissue fluid, and into which carbon dioxide passes: a blood capillary. The vessel at the top that collects excess tissue fluid is the lymphatic vessel.

Question 18

18 On a cold day, learners in a class started shivering. Which correctly explains this?
A over-cooling leading to heat gain
B over-cooling leading to heat loss
C vasoconstriction leading to heat loss
D vasodilation leading to heat loss

Answer: A. When the body over-cools, muscles contract and relax rapidly (shivering). This releases heat from respiration, so the body gains heat. Vasoconstriction reduces heat loss, so C is wrong.

Question 19

19 The diagram shows the structure of a kidney. What is part X?
A cortex
B medulla
C pelvis
D ureter

Section through a kidney with X labelling one of the dark cone-shaped regions

Answer: B (medulla). X points to the dark, striped, cone-shaped pyramids, which make up the medulla. The cortex is the thin outer layer, and the pelvis is the space where urine collects before the ureter.

Question 20

20 Which results from increased secretion of adrenaline?
A decreased breathing rate
B decreased sweating
C increased blood supply to the intestines
D increased supply of glucose in the blood

Answer: D. Adrenaline prepares the body for “fight or flight”: the liver releases glucose into the blood for extra respiration in muscles. It increases breathing rate and diverts blood away from the intestines.

Question 21

21 Which is an example of a spinal reflex?
A blinking
B coughing
C knee jerk
D sneezing

Answer: C (knee jerk). The knee-jerk reflex arc passes through the spinal cord. Blinking, coughing and sneezing are cranial reflexes controlled by the brain.

Question 22

22 Which of the following identifies the path taken by a ray of light for an image to be formed on the retina?
A Cornea → lens → pupil → retina
B Cornea → pupil → lens → retina
C Lens → cornea → pupil → retina
D Pupil → cornea → lens → retina

Answer: B (cornea → pupil → lens → retina). Light enters through the transparent cornea, passes through the pupil (the hole in the iris), is focused by the lens and lands on the retina.

Question 23

23 In which labelled part of the long bone is red bone marrow found?

Long bone with parts labelled A to D

Answer: B (spongy bone at the end of the bone). Red marrow, which makes blood cells, fills the spaces in the spongy bone at the ends. A is cartilage, and the hollow shaft holds yellow (fatty) marrow.

Question 24

24 The diagram shows the effect of auxin on a root placed horizontally. Which best describes the result?
A less on X, promotes elongation
B less on Y, promotes elongation
C more on X, retards elongation
D more on Y, retards elongation

A horizontal root with lower side X and upper side Y, which later bends downwards

Answer: C (more auxin on X, retards cell elongation). Gravity makes auxin collect on the lower side (X). In roots, high auxin concentration slows elongation, so the upper side (Y) grows faster and the root bends down. In shoots the effect is the opposite.

Question 25

25 In which labelled region of the root tip will there be most cell division?

Longitudinal section of a root tip with regions labelled A to D

Answer: C (region of cell division, the meristem). It lies just behind the root cap (D). B is the region of elongation and A is the region of differentiation, where root hairs appear.

Question 26

26 What type of reproduction takes place in Rhizopus?
A binary fission
B budding
C fragmentation
D spore formation

Answer: D (spore formation). Rhizopus (bread mould) produces spores in sporangia. Binary fission is typical of bacteria, and budding of yeast.

Question 27

27 Which of the following adaptive structures are for a wind-pollinated flower?
A Brightly coloured petals, large anthers and long filaments
B Brightly coloured petals, small anthers and short filaments
C Dull coloured petals, large anthers and long filaments
D Dull coloured petals, small anthers and short filaments

Answer: C (dull coloured petals, large anthers and long filaments). Wind flowers do not need to attract insects, so petals are small and dull. Long filaments hold large anthers outside the flower so the wind can carry away lots of pollen.

Question 28

28 Which parts form the female part of the flower?
A P, Q, R
B T, S, R
C T, U, S
D U, P, T

Section of a flower with parts labelled P to U

Answer: A (P, Q, R). The carpel is made of the stigma (P), style (Q) and ovary (R). S is an anther and T a filament, the male parts.

Question 29

29 How are the seeds of the following plants dispersed?

NOP
AAnimalSelfWind
BAnimalWindSelf
CSelfAnimalWind
DSelfWindAnimal
Three fruits: N covered in hooks, O with a wide papery wing, P a pod

Answer: B (N animal, O wind, P self). N has hooks that catch on fur; O has a light papery wing carried by wind; P is a pod that dries and splits open, throwing out its seeds (self-dispersal).

Question 30

30 Which hormones stimulate the secretion of oestrogen and progesterone during the menstrual cycle?
A Adrenaline and luteinising hormone
B Antidiuretic hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
C Antidiuretic hormone and luteinising hormone
D Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone

Answer: D (follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone). Both come from the pituitary gland: FSH stimulates the follicle to make oestrogen, and LH causes ovulation and stimulates the corpus luteum to make progesterone. ADH controls water balance, not the menstrual cycle.

Question 31

31 Which one is not a health risk associated with foetal development?
A alcohol and drugs
B antenatal services
C poor nutrition
D smoking

Answer: B (antenatal services). Antenatal care protects the mother and baby; the other three can harm the developing foetus.

Question 32

32 Which is not a possible risk of using contraceptives?
A disturbed menstrual cycle
B hormonal imbalance
C planned families
D weight gain

Answer: C (planned families). Planning a family is a benefit of contraception, not a risk.

Question 33

33 What stage of mitosis is illustrated in the diagram?
A Anaphase
B Prophase
C Telophase
D Metaphase

Cell with chromatids being pulled towards opposite poles by spindle fibres

Answer: A (anaphase). The spindle fibres are pulling chromatids apart towards opposite poles. In metaphase the chromosomes would be lined up across the middle.

Question 34

34 Which statement about sperm cells is correct? They contain …
A either one X or one Y chromosome
B one X and one Y chromosome
C one X chromosome
D one Y chromosome

Answer: A. A man’s body cells are XY. Meiosis separates the pair, so half his sperm carry an X and half carry a Y. This is why the father’s sperm decides the sex of the baby.

Question 35

35 Which phylum has organisms with three pairs of legs?
A Annelida
B Arthropoda
C Mollusca
D Porifera

Answer: B (Arthropoda). Insects, which have three pairs of jointed legs, belong to the phylum Arthropoda.

Question 36

36 In which type of soil will a plant tolerant to acid and waterlogging grow well?
A clay
B limestone
C loam
D sandy

Answer: A (clay soil). Clay has tiny particles and small air spaces, so it drains poorly and becomes waterlogged. Limestone soils are alkaline, and sandy soils drain quickly.

Question 37

37 What do we call a group of organisms of different species living in the same area and interacting with each other?
A community
B habitat
C niche
D population

Answer: A (community). A population is one species; a community is all the populations of different species in an area.

Question 38

38 The diagram shows a food web. Which organisms in the food web are producers?
A Field mouse, dandelion and grass
B Grass, wheat and dandelion
C Rabbit, dandelion and field mouse
D Wheat, rabbit and field mouse

Food web of grass, dandelion, wheat, rabbit, field mouse, fox and man

Answer: B (grass, wheat and dandelion). Producers are green plants that make food by photosynthesis. Arrows point away from them, and nothing points into them.

Question 39

39 The diagram shows the carbon cycle. Identify the processes marked X, Y and Z.

XYZ
APhotosynthesisCombustionDecomposition
BPhotosynthesisRespirationDecomposition
CRespirationPhotosynthesisFossilisation
DRespirationRespirationFossilisation
Carbon cycle with arrows X from soil to carbon dioxide, Y from plants to carbon dioxide and Z from plants to fossil fuels

Answer: D (X respiration, Y respiration, Z fossilisation). X: decomposers in the soil respire, releasing CO₂. Y: plants also respire, releasing CO₂ (the downward arrow is photosynthesis). Z: buried plant remains slowly become fossil fuels.

Question 40

40 Which will contribute to land pollution?
A dead plant remains
B mineral elements
C non-biodegradable materials
D soil micro-organisms

Answer: C (non-biodegradable materials). Plastics and similar materials cannot be broken down by decomposers, so they build up on land. Dead plant remains rot and return nutrients to the soil.

Keep practising

Try another paper under timed conditions, then check your work against the solutions.